Through my emergence from oppressive theological systems to a way of life, certain ideas that were confusing to me before are suddenly starting to make more sense.
Even though i have been aware of this for quite some time, this thought keeps coming back to me lately.
If Noah and Job were neither Jews nor Christians, how were they declared righteous by G-d?
It really is an interesting thought. Some Fundamentalist Christians believe that they were declared righteous because they 'looked ahead' at the coming of Jesus. That is obviously incredibly weak. Other Christians believe that they were justified by the 'Law of Moses' but that when Jesus came he 'did away' with the Law or 'fulfilled' the Law and thus instituted that everyone must believe in him alone to 'be saved' or 'declared righteous'.
But the Covenant and Law of Moses hadn't even been given yet to Noah or Job or any man before Sinai. What was given to them were the Seven Noachide Laws.
If observance of these seven laws made a Gentile/Noachide righteous before the Law of Moses was given at Sinai, obviously observance of these laws makes a Gentile righteous after Sinai as the covenant at Sinai made the Israelites into Jews but Gentiles remained Gentiles.
Even today, Christians still try to adhere to these seven laws as most of them are contained in the Ten Commandments. If Jesus 'did away' with the Law of Moses, how is it that certain laws still stand for Christians while others are 'done away' with? If these laws need to be obeyed because they are moral laws, then it brings us right back to the beginning. All human beings are declared righteous if they observe the moral laws of G-d as laid out in the Torah, thus eliminating the need for an intermediary or belief in a person to 'be saved' or declared righteous.
It's just a very interesting thought to me.